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Q:

If CGKQW is one sequence following a logic, and another five-letter sequence following similar type of logic is BFJPV, then one more variation of this type can be ?

A) VPCFT	B) DHLRX
C) CFKNT	D) None

Answer & Explanation Answer: B) DHLRX

Explanation:

The logic behind the sequence given in the question is +4, +4, +6, +6
Therefore, the sequence which follows the same logic in the given options is DHLRX.

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Filed Under: Alphabet Test
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5 5061

Q:

'Nail' is related to 'Nail-cutter' in the same way as 'Hair' is related to ?

A) Oil	B) Haircut
C) Scissors	D) Comb

Answer & Explanation Answer: C) Scissors

Explanation:

The first is cut by the second.

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Filed Under: Analogy
Exam Prep: TOEFL
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5 6082

Q:

a) In a family of 6 persons, there are two couples. b) The lawyer is the head of the family and has only two sons- Suresh and Rajesh- both teachers. c) Mrs. Veena and her mother-in-law both are lawyers. d) Suresh's wife is a Doctor and they have a son, Ankith.

1) What is the profession of Rajesh's wife ?

2) What is Ankith's grandfather's occupation ?

Answer

Answer: 1) Rajesh's wife is Mrs. Veena and she is a lawyer.

Answer: 2) The family doesn't have Ankith's grandfather.

So, we can't determine.

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Subject: Logic Exam Prep: GRE , TOEFL
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5 5303

Q:

The area of a square is 1024 sq.cm. What is the ratio of the length to the breadth of a rectangle whose length is twice the side of the square and breadth is 12 cm less than the side of this square ?

A) 14:9	B) 13:12
C) 16:5	D) 17:13

Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 16:5

Explanation:

Area of a square SxS = 1024 => S = 32 cm
Length of the rectangle = 32x2 cm = 64 cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 32 - 12 = 20 cm
Required ratio = 64 : 20 = 16 : 5

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Filed Under: Area
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5 9582

Q:

Deepa started a business in 2009 by investing Rs.50,000. She invested Rs. 20,000 as additional amount in 2010 and her friend Sushma joined her with an amount of Rs.70,000. Deepa invested another Rs. 20,000 in 2011 and Avanthi joined them with Rs. 70,000. At the end of these 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 3,00,000. Find Sushma's share ?

A) Rs. 75,000	B) Rs. 85,000
C) Rs. 98,000	D) Rs. 1,00,000

Answer & Explanation Answer: D) Rs. 1,00,000

Explanation:

Deepa invested Rs.50,000 for 12 months, Rs.(50000 + 20000) for 12 months and Rs.(50000 + 20000 + 20000) for 12 months.
i.e, she invested Rs.50,000 for 12 months, Rs.70000 for 12 months and Rs.90000 for 12 months.
Sushma invested Rs. 70000 for 2 years; i.e, Rs.70000 for 24 months
And, Avanthi invested Rs.70000 for 1 year; i.e, Rs. 70000 for 12 months.

Their investing ratio:
Deepa : Sushma : Avanthi = (50,000 x 12 + 70000 x 12 + 90000 x 12):(70000 x 24):(70000 x 12)
= (25,20,000):(16,80,000):(8,40,000) = 252:168:84 = 3:2:1

Total profit for 3 years = Rs.3,00,000
Therefore, Sushma's share = Rs.(3,00,000 x 2 /(3+2+1)) = Rs.(3,00,000 x 2/6) = Rs.1,00,000.

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Filed Under: Partnership
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5 11971

Q:

In how many different ways could couples be picked from 6 men and 9 women ?

A) 26	B) 54
C) 52	D) 28

Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 54

Explanation:

Number of mens = 8

Number of womens = 5

Different ways could couples be picked = ${}^{6}C_{1} \times {}^{9} C_{1}$ = 9 x 6 = 54 ways.

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Filed Under: Permutations and Combinations
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5 2085

Q:

Full convertibility of a rupee means ?

A) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply	B) Repayment of loans in terms of rupees
C) Payment for imports in terms of rupees	D) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely

Answer & Explanation Answer: A) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply

Explanation:

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Filed Under: Indian Economy
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5 5064

Q:

Consider 5 independent Bernoulli’s trials each with probability of success p. If the probability of at least one failure is greater than or equal to 31/32 , then p lies in the interval ?

A) [1, 32]	B) (0, 1)
C) [1, 1/2]	D) (1, 1/2]

Answer & Explanation Answer: C) [1, 1/2]

Explanation:

Probability of atleast one failure
= 1 - no failure > 31/32
= 1 - $P^{5}$ > 31/32
= $P^{5} <$ 1/32
= p < 1/2
Also p > 0
Hence p lies in [0,1/2].

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Filed Under: Probability
Exam Prep: CAT , AIEEE
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5 5677

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