Aptitude and Reasoning Questions

Q:

__bam__amb__m__a__bam

A) mbabm B) abmab
C) mabma D) ambbm
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) mbabm

Explanation:

Here "mba" is repeated 

 mbambambambambam

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Filed Under: Number Series

12 4250
Q:

29 is 0.8% of?

A) 3625 B) 1450
C) 7250 D) 10875
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) 3625

Explanation:
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Filed Under: Percentage
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams

3 4247
Q:

Maheshwari wants to buy 7 floors in an 68 storied building whose numbering stars from 1 upto 68. But she has to follow certain rules which are as follows :

1) None of the floor should be a prime number

2) None of the digit of the floor should be a prime number

3) Maheshwari cannot buy the 1st floor as it is being assigned to the architect.

So how many options are left with Maheshwari to buy the floors ?

A) 11 B) 17
C) 13 D) 19
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 17

Explanation:

Since floor starts form the 1 therefore 2 will be the 1st floor.
Form 1 to 10 only 4,6,8,9,10 are not prime.
Form 11 to 20 only 14 ,16,18 are not prime also non of their digits are prime.
From 21 to 30 each number has a prime number so it must no be consider.
In between 40 to 49 we have to consider only 40,44,46,48,49.
50 to 59 follow either of the condition so we have too neglect it.
In between 60 to 68 60,64,66,68.
total option = 17.

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Filed Under: Numbers
Exam Prep: AIEEE , CAT , Bank Exams
Job Role: Bank Clerk , Bank PO

4 4247
Q:

What is the value of sin 46 cos 44+ cos 46 sin 44?

A) 2 B) sin 2
C) 1 D) 0
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 1

Explanation:

sin 46. cos 44+ cos 46. sin 44

sin 46. sin (90 -44)+ cos 46. cos (90 -44)

= sin^2 46 + cos^2 46

= 1

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Filed Under: Simplification
Exam Prep: Bank Exams

3 4244
Q:

If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, then how many times do you write 4 ?

A) 11 B) 20
C) 17 D) 14
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 20

Explanation:

4, 14, 24, 34, 44, 54, 64, 74, 84, 94 => has 11 number of (4's)
40, 41, 42, 43, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49 => has 9 number of (4's)
So, totally (11 + 9 = 20) number of 4's in 1 to 100.

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Filed Under: Numbers
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT
Job Role: Bank Clerk , Bank PO

2 4243
Q:

A milkman has 20 liters of milk. If he mixes 5 liters of water, which is freely available, in 20 liters of pure milk. If the cost of pure milk is Rs. 18 per litre, then the profit of the milkman, when he sells all the mixture at cost price, the profit % ?

A) 22.5% B) 25%
C) 20% D) 33.33%
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 25%

Explanation:

As water costs free, water sold at cost price of milk gives the profit.

Required profit % = 5/20 x 100 = 5 x 5 = 25%.

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Filed Under: Alligation or Mixture
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT
Job Role: Analyst , Bank Clerk , Bank PO

19 4238
Q:

Relation Between Efficiencies

6 boys and 8 girls finish a job in 6 days and 14 boys and 10 girls finish the same job in 4 days. In how many days working together 1 boy and 1 girl can finish the work?

Answer

Sol : In this kind of questions we find the work force required to complete the work in 1 day (or given unit of time) then we equate the work force to find the relationship between the efficiencies (or work rate) between the different workers.


 


Therefore, 6B+8G = 6 days


 => 6(6B+8G)= 1 day  (inversely proportional)


 => 36B+48G =1         ( by unitary method)


 


Again  14B+10G = 4days


 => 56B+40G =1


 


so, here it is clear that either we employ 36B and 48G to finish the work in 1 day or 56B and 40G to finish the same job in 1 day. thus , we can say


 => 36B+48G = 56B+40G


 => G= 2.5B


Thus a Girl is 2.5 times as efficient as a boy.


 


Now, since  36B+48G = 1


 => 36B+48(2.5 B)=1


 =>156B=1


i.e., to finish the job in 1 day 156 boys are required or the amount of work is 156 boys-days


 


Again    1G+1B=2.5B+1B=3.5B


 


Now, since 156 boys can finish the job in 1 day


so 1 boy can finish the job in 156 days


Therefore, 3.5 boys can finish the job in 1×1563.5= 47 days.


 


 

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Subject: Time and Work

2 4237
Q:

What is the probability that a couple with four children have atleast one girl?

A) 0.0625 B) 0.9375
C) 0.5 D) 0.0257
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 0.9375

Explanation:

Here,n = 4(children)

P(girl)= 0.5

P(of atleast one girl)= 1 - P(no girls)

                             = 1 - 0.0625 = 0.9375

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Filed Under: Probability

3 4237