Aptitude and Reasoning Questions

Let Althaf lent Rs. A at 14% per year.
Hence, Money lent at 12% = (1500-A);
Given, total interest = Rs. 186.
{(A x 14x 1)/100} + {[(1500-A) x 12 x 1/100]} = 186;
14A/100 + (18000 -12A)/100 = 186;
14A + 18000 - 12A = 186x100;
2A = 18600-18000;
A = 600/2 = Rs. 300.
Hence, money lent at 12% = 1500-300 = Rs. 1200.

Given:j=7% compounded semiannually making m=2 and i = j/m= 7%/2 = 3.5%
Let x represent the third payment. Then the second payment must be 2x.
PV1,PV2, andPV3 represent the present values of the first, second, and third payments.

Since the sum of the present values of all payments equals the original loan, then
PV1 + PV2  +PV3
=$4000 -------(1)

PV1
  =FV/(1 + i)^n
=$1000/(1.035)^4=
$871.44

At first, we may be stumped as to how to proceed for
PV2 and PV3. Let’s think about the third payment of x dollars. We can compute the present value of just $1 from the x dollars

pv=1/(1.035)^10=0.7089188

PV2
  =2x * 0.7089188 =
1.6270013x
PV3
  =x * 0.7089188=0.7089188x
Now substitute these values into equation ➀ and solve for x.
$871.442 + 1.6270013x + 0.7089188x
=$4000

2.3359201x
=$3128.558

x=$1339.326
Kramer’s second payment will be 2($1339.326)
=$2678.65, and the third payment will be $1339.33

Required number of ways = 7C5 × 3C2=63

Time from 12 p.m. on Tuesday to 2 p.m. on the following Tuesday = 7 days 2 hours.
= 170 hours.
The watch gains = (2 + 4 x 4/5) min
= 34/5 min. in 170 hrs.
Now, 34/5 min are gained in 170 hrs.
Then, 2 min are gained in (170 x 5/34 x 2) hrs.
Watch is correct after 2 days 2 hrs after 12 p.m. on Tuesday, i.e., it will be correct at 2 p.m. on Thursday.

If After p years , commodity X will cost 60 rupees more than the commodity Y, then

320 + 60p = 740 + 20p + 60
=> p = 12

So in year (2002 + 12 = 2014), commodity X will cost Rs.60 more than the commodity Y.

Money invested by Rajan before 1 year was = Rs. 100000

Money in UK pounds @ 75 is = 100000/75 = 1333.33 Pounds

Now, after 1 year invested amount was appreciated by 20%

=> 20% of 1333.33 = 266.66

Total investment becomes = 1333.33 + 266.66 = 1600 Pounds

This 1600 Pounds @ Indian currency at 80 = 1600 x 80 = Rs. 1,28,000

Hence, Rajan's investment of Rs. 1,00,000 becomes Rs. 1,28,000 in 1 year

Therefore, his profit % = [(128000 - 100000)/100000] x 100 = 28%.

Compound Interest for 1 ¹⁄₂ years when interest is compounded yearly = Rs.(5304 - 5000)

Amount after 1¹⁄₂ years when interest is compounded half-yearly 


Compound Interest for 1 ¹⁄₂ years when interest is compounded half-yearly = Rs.(5306.04 - 5000)

Difference in the compound interests = (5306.04 - 5000) - (5304 - 5000)= 5306.04 - 5304 = Rs. 2.04

The step discussed in the statement would surely give a boost to hardware industry and help our country to stand apart in this field. Thus, only I follows.