Quantitative Aptitude - Arithmetic Ability Questions

Q:

Kamal consistently runs 240 meters a day and on Saturday he runs for 400 meters. How many kilometers will he have to run in four weeks ?

A) 5.75 kms B) 7.36 kms
C) 8.2 kms D) 6.98 kms
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 7.36 kms

Explanation:

Total running distance in four weeks = (24 x 240) + (4 x 400)

= 5760 + 1600

= 7360 meters

= 7360/1000

=> 7.36 kms

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Time and Distance
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
Job Role: Bank Clerk , Bank PO

7 6282
Q:

In a triangle ABC, angle 'a' is the smallest one & A+7B = 112. Find the range of value 'c' ?

A) 138 to 164 B) 125 to 147
C) 148 to 158 D) 152 to 164
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 152 to 164

Explanation:

A+7B=112

it is clear that A = 14, then it becomes A>=B, but A is smallest angle) given
so, range of A is 0.0001 to 13.9999 ( I am taking upto 4 decimal places)
so, range of B becomes 14 to 16 ( after rounding off to 4 decimal places)
so, range of C becomes 152 to 164 ( after rounding off to 4 decimal places)

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Numbers
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
Job Role: Bank Clerk , Bank PO

8 6282
Q:

When 52416 is divided by 312, the quotient is 168. what will be the quotient when 52.416 is divided by 0.0168?

A) 3.12 B) 312
C) 3120 D) None of these
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 3120

Explanation:

Given, 52416312=168 52416168=312 

 

Now , 52.4160.0168=5241616.8=52416168×10 =312×10=3120

 

 

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Decimal Fractions

9 6281
Q:

Simplyfiy : 314÷114-12212-14+16

A) 78 B) 88
C) 98 D) 108
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) 78

Explanation:

Given exp =134÷54-1252-3-212134÷54-1252-112

 

134÷54-1230-112 = 134÷54-2924

 

 = 134÷30-2924=78

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Simplification

4 6275
Q:

The incomes of two persons A and B are in the ratio 3:4. If each saves Rs.100 per month, the ratio of their expenditures is 1:2. Find their incomes  ?

A) 200, 400 B) 100, 300
C) 100, 200 D) 150, 200
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 150, 200

Explanation:

The incomes of A and B be 3P and 4P.

Expenditures = Income - Savings

(3P - 100) and (4P - 100)

The ratio of their expenditure = 1:2

(3P - 100):(4P - 100) = 1:2

2P = 100 => P = 50

Their incomes = 150, 200

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Ratios and Proportions
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
Job Role: Bank Clerk , Bank PO

6 6268
Q:

K and L start a business jointly. K invests Rs.16000 for 8 months and L remains in the business for 4 months. Out of the total profit L claims 2/7th share. How much money is contributed by L?

A) Rs. 13,204 B) Rs. 14,521
C) Rs. 12,800 D) Rs. 15,000
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) Rs. 12,800

Explanation:

Given share of L is 2/7 th of profit. Then, their profits are divided in to 5:2 ratio.

Ratio of K and L is


16000×8x×4=52


x = Rs. 12,800.

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Partnership
Exam Prep: GRE , GATE , CAT , Bank Exams , AIEEE
Job Role: Bank PO , Bank Clerk , Analyst

8 6268
Q:

Raghu can do a job in 12 days alone and Sam can do the same job in 15 days alone. A third person Aru whose efficiency is two-third of efficiency of both Ram and Shyam together, can do the same job in how many days alone?

A) 10 B) 12
C) 13 D) 15
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) 10

Explanation:

One day work of Raghu and Sam together = 1/12 + 1/15 = 9/60 = 3/20

Aru efficiency = 2/3 of (Raghu + Sam)

Number of days required for Aru to do thw work alone = 3/2 x 20/3 = 10 days. 

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Time and Work
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
Job Role: Analyst , Bank Clerk , Bank PO

9 6252
Q:

Consider 5 independent Bernoulli’s trials each with probability of success p. If the probability of at least one failure is greater than or equal to 31/32 , then p lies in the interval ?

A) [1, 32] B) (0, 1)
C) [1, 1/2] D) (1, 1/2]
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) [1, 1/2]

Explanation:

Probability of atleast one failure
= 1 - no failure > 31/32
= 1 - P5 > 31/32
=  P5<1/32
= p < 1/2
Also p > 0
Hence p lies in [0,1/2].

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Probability
Exam Prep: CAT , AIEEE
Job Role: Bank Clerk

5 6252