Questions

Q:

Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from the office by 

 

A) Both houses of Parliament  B) Union council of Ministers 
C) President of India  D) Chief Justice of India
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) Both houses of Parliament 

Explanation:
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Q:

Which one ofthe following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?

 

A) The Parliament may by law constitute Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels B) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.
C) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leaveto appeal. D) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leaveto appeal.

Explanation:

Article 323A provides that Parliament may by law establish tribunals for adjudication of disputes concerning recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public service under Central, State or any Local or other authority or a corporation owned or controlled by the Government of India. The law made by Parliament for the purpose may specify the jurisdiction and procedure of the tribunals. Under clause 2(d), the law may exclude the jurisdiction of all courts except that of the Supreme Court under article 136 with respect to the service matters falling within the purview of the tribunals.

 

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Q:

In January 2018, who notified the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017?

 

A) Ministry of Finance   B) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry D) Ministry of Information and Technology (IT)
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Explanation:
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Q:

What are the minimum qualifications of a person to become a member of Lok Sabha?

 

I. Must be a citizen of India

II. Must not be less than 25 years of age

III. Must hold an office of profit under Union Government.

 

A) Both I and II B) Both I and III
C) Both II and III D) All I, II and III
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) Both I and II

Explanation:
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Q:

A boy raises a box with a weight of 120N through a height of 2 m. The work done by him is

 

A) 60 J B) 120 J
C) 240 J D) 180 J
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 240 J

Explanation:
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Q:

Consider the  following statements  about the Second Five-Year Plan :

1.It  was  drafted  under  the  leadership  of K. N. Raj

2.It    proposed    that    industries    like electricity,  railways,  steel,  machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector.

3.The  drafters  found  balancing  industry and agriculture very difficult.

4.The  drafters  found  balancing  industry and agriculture really easy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3 D) 3 and 4
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 2 and 3

Explanation:

The   Second   Five-year   plan   was drafted  under  the  leadership  of  P. C.   Mahalanobis. It   focused   on heavy    industries    and    followed socialist  pattern  of  society  as  its goal.Since savings and investment were growing in this period, a bulk of  these  industries  like  electricity railways,   steel, machineries   and communication could be developed in the public sector. However it had its   problems   as   well,because industry attracted more investment than  agriculture,  the  possibility  of food shortage became adverse.So, the    planners    found    balancing industry    and    agriculture    really difficult;  while  K.  N.  Raj  drafted sections  of  India’s  first  Five-Year Plan

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Q:

Brent Index is associated with which of the followings?

 

A) crude oil prices   B) copper future prices  
C) gold future prices D) shipping rate index
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) crude oil prices  

Explanation:
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Q:

The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to

1.the power of judicial review

2.the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)

3.the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India

4.the judgment in Golaknath case (1967)

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A) 1, 2 and 3 only B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 4 only
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

The Golaknath Case of 1967 relates to the power of the Parliament to curtail the Fundamental Rights provided in the Constitution.In 1967, the Supreme Court reversed its earlier decisions in Golaknath v. State of Punjab. It held that Fundamental Rights included in Part III of the Constitution are given a "transcendental position" and arebeyond the reach of Parliament. It also declared any amendment that "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III as unconstitutional. By 1973, the basic structure doctrine triumphed in Justice Hans Raj Khanna's judgment in the landmark decision of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

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