Searching for "he"

Q:

The router address 192.168.10.250 is the default gateway for both the Web Server 2 and Host 1. What is the correct subnet mask for this network?

A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.255.250
D. 255.255.255.252

Answer

Answer : A

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: CCNA

Q:

What must be configured on the network in order for users on the Internet to view web pages located on Web Server 2?

A. On router R2, configure a default static route to the 192.168.10.0 network
B. On router r2, configure DNS to resolve the URL assigned to Web Server 2 to the 192.168.10.20 address
C. On router R1, configure NAT to translate an address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to 192.168.10.20
D. On router R1, configure DHCP to assign a registered IP address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to Web Server 2

Answer

Answer : C

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: CCNA

Q:

An administrator issues the command

A. The PC host PC1 has connectivity with a local host
B. The PC host PC1 has connectivity with a Layer 3 device
C. The PC host PC1 has a default gateway correctly configured
D. The PC host PC1 has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model
E. The PC host PC1 has the TCP/IP protocol stack correctly installed

Answer

Answer : E


Explanation:


The “ping 127.0.0.1″ command is used to troubleshoot the local network card and the TCP/IP stack to make sure is working correctly. If an ICMP echo reply is received, that shows there are connectivity to a particular host in the network.


 

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: CCNA

Q:

Why does the Outstanding exp & Prepared Expenses treated as Personal Account?

Answer

Because these exps are paid/payable to persons. person includes Sole Proprietor, Partnership Firms, HUF, Co; etc.Personal accounts always appear in B/S until it is transfered to expenditure by debiting to P&L A/C.

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: Accounts Payable

Q:

What is the difference between debenture and preference share ?

Answer

The difference between Debentures and Preferential Shares is as follows:

1) Person holding debentures has owed money to a company, while Preferential Shareholder could be considered as a partial owner of the company.

2) A Preference shareholder earns dividends if the company is making profits, however a debenture holder needs to be paid irrespective of making profits or losses.

3) A debenture holder would be paid the capital invested at the end of a stipulated term. A preference shareholder is not promised return of capital invested; instead he earns dividends till the time the company exists and is profitable.

4) A debenture holder earns interest on the capital invested till the capital is not returned, while a preference shareholder is paid dividends till the time the company exists.

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: Accounts Payable

Q:

What is the meaning of Per Diem?

Answer

It is the allowance paid to an employee who is working on a special assignment.  This amount is completely exclusive of his Compensation plan.  These are given in scenerio's like, when the employee went for On Job Training or an Employee sent for short term Deputation to survive his expenses in the new location.

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: Accounts Payable

Q:

What is the Debit Balance recovery? How we can recover if we wont have any future transactions from supplier?

Answer

The Debit balance recovery is usually made by raising a credit memo for the regular vendors. However if there are no future transactions from the supplier, we ask the vendor to send the check / make an EFT for the amount due from him.


When payment is made to the wrong vendor or payment made in excess, in that case overpayment has gone to the vendor, So for us it is vendor debit balance.


For debit balance recovery, we can either follow-up with the vendor to send us the excess amount / refund back, or we can adjust that extra amount in future invoices submitted by that vendor


In Case no future transactions, we have to follow-up with the vendor, falling whicch we have to write off this amount.

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: Accounts Payable

Q:

How does the payment mechanism work?

Answer

The open items of an account can only be cleared once you post an identical offsetting amount to the account. In other words, the balance of the items assigned to each other must equal zero.During clearing, the system enters a clearing document number and the clearing date in these items. In this way, invoices in a vendor account are indicated as paid, and items in a bank clearing account are indicated as cleared.

You generally use the payment program to clear invoices. Manual clearing of open items is therefore not usually necessary. However, you will sometimes have to clear items manually if, for example, you receive a refund from your vendor or you have set up a direct debit procedure.

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: Accounts Payable