A) 8 hrs 45 min | B) 8 hrs 42 min |

C) 8 hrs | D) 8 hrs 34 min |

Explanation:

Number of pages typed by Adam in 1 hour = 36/6 = 6

Number of pages typed by Smith in 1 hour = 40/5 = 8

Number of pages typed by both in 1 hour = (6 + 8) = 14

Time taken by both to type 110 pages = (120 * 1/14) = $8\frac{4}{7}$ = 8 hrs 34 min.

A) 44 | B) 32 |

C) 56 | D) 49 |

Explanation:

Girl eats 112 chocolates in 30 sec

so she can eat in 12 sec is 12 x 112/30 = 44.8 chocolates.

Her boy friend can eat one-half of 112 in twice of 30 sec

so he can eat 56 in 60 sec

Then he can eat in 12 sec is 56 x 12/60 = 11.2 chocolates.

Hence, together they can eat = 44.8 + 11.2 =56 chocolates in 12 seconds.

A) 24 $ | B) 22 $ |

C) 16 $ | D) 14 $ |

Explanation:

Let the 1 day work of a boy=b and a girl=g, then

2b + g = 1/5 ---(i) and

b + 2g = 1/6 ---(ii)

On solving (i) & (ii), b=7/90, g=2/45

As payment of work will be in proportion to capacity of work and a boy is paid $ 28/week,

so a girl will be paid $28\times \frac{{\displaystyle \frac{2}{45}}}{{\displaystyle \frac{7}{90}}}$ = 16 $.

A) 3 days | B) 26/3 days |

C) 13/4 days | D) 24/5 days |

Explanation:

we know that **m1 x d1 = m2 x d2**

=> 4 x 6 = 5 x d

where d = no. of days taken by 5 men to paint

d = 24/5 days.

A) 2 days | B) 3 days |

C) 4 days | D) 5 days |

Explanation:

One day work of 6 boys and 8 girls is given as 6b + 8g = 1/10 -------->(I)

One day work of 26 boys and 48 women is given as 26b + 48w = 1/2 -------->(II)

Divide both sides by 2 in (I) and then multiply both sides by 5

Now we get, 15b + 20g = 1/4.

Therefore, 15 boys and 20 girls can do the same work in 4 days.

A) 145 | B) 165 |

C) 175 | D) 135 |

Explanation:

Given that,

working days = 5

working hours = 8

A man get rupess per hour is Rs.2.40

So in one day the man get total rupees is 2.40 x 8 = 19.2

So in 5 days week the man get total rupees is 19.2 x 5 = 96

So in 4 week the man get total rupees is 96 x 4 = 384

So the man worked for = 160hours in 4 weeks

But given that the man earned Rs.432

Hence remaning money is (432-384 = 48)which is earn by doing overtime work

Overtime hours = 48/3.20 = 15

So total worked hours is = 15 + 160 = 175.

A) 12 days | B) 24 days |

C) 32 days | D) 16 days |

Explanation:

It is given that efficiency ratio =3:1

so time ratio will be 1:3 (since work is same)

Also given that time diff = 32 days. ratio difference = 3-1 =2

2 ratio = 32 days

1 ratio = 16 days.

So A will alone finish it in 16 days and B will finish it in 16*3 = 48 days.

Total work = LCM of 16 and 48 = 48.

Total time = Total work/Total efficiency

ie; 48/4= 12 days.

A) 15 days | B) 13 days |

C) 12 days | D) 10 days |

Explanation:

In one day work done by K = 1/20

Work done by K in 2 days = 1/10

Work done by K,L,M on 3rd day =1/20 + 1/30 + 1/60 = 1/10

Therefore, workdone in 3 days is = 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5

1/5th of the work will be completed at the end of 3 days.

The remaining work = 1 - 1/5 = 4/5

1/5 of work is completed in 3 days

Total work wiil be done in 3 x 5 = 15 days.

A) 4/3 days | B) 2 days |

C) 3/2 days | D) 4 days |

Explanation:

Let the total number of documents to be printed be 12.

The number of documents printed by P in 1 day = 4.

The number of documents printed by Q in 1 day = 3.

The number of documents printed by R in 1 day = 2.

Thus, the total number of documents that can be printed by all the machines working simultaneously in a single day = 9.

Therefore, the number of days taken to complete the whole work = 12/9 = 4/3 days.