Quantitative Aptitude - Arithmetic Ability Questions

Q:

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

34 of 35 of 23 of ? = 3174

A) 10550 B) 10540
C) 10580 D) 10500
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 10580

Explanation:

23x35x34x?=31743174x10/3= 10580

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0 19679
Q:

In measuring the sides of a rectangle, one side is taken 5% in excess and the other 4% in deficit. Find the error percent in the area, calculate from the those measurements.

A) .7% B) 0.8%
C) 0.9% D) 0.3%
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 0.8%

Explanation:

let x and y be the sides of the rectangle then 

correct area =105100x×96100y 

 

Error% = 504500xy-xy=4500xy %

 

4500xy×1xy×100=45=0.8

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Filed Under: Area
Exam Prep: Bank Exams
Job Role: Bank PO

11 19640
Q:

Rs.100 doubled in 5 years when compounded annually. How many more years will it take to get another Rs.200 compound interest

A) 3years B) 5years
C) 6years D) 7years
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 5years

Explanation:

Rs.100 invested in compound interest becomes Rs.200 in 5 years.

The amount will double again in another 5 years.

i.e., the amount will become Rs.400 in another 5 years.

So, to earn another Rs.200 interest, it will take another 5 years.

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Filed Under: Compound Interest
Exam Prep: Bank Exams
Job Role: Bank PO

14 19628
Q:

54 is to be divided into two parts such that the sum of 10 times the first and 22 times the second is 780. The bigger part is :

A) 24 B) 34
C) 44 D) 54
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 34

Explanation:

Let the two parts be (54 - x) and x.

Then, 10 (54 - x) + 22x = 780

=> 12x = 240  

=>  x = 20.

Bigger part = (54 - x)  = 34.

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Filed Under: Problems on Numbers

17 19622
Q:

Amar can do a piece of work in 10 days. He works at it for 4 days and then Arun finishes it in 9 days. In how many days can Amar and Arun together finish the work ?

A) 4 days B) 8 days
C) 3 days D) 6 days
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 6 days

Explanation:

4/10 + 9/x = 1     => x = 15 

 

Then both can do in 

1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6     => 6 days

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Filed Under: Time and Work
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19 19588
Q:

Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third integer is :

A) 12 B) 137
C) 14 D) 15
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 15

Explanation:

Let the three integers be x, x + 2 and x + 4. Then, 3x = 2 (x + 4) + 3  <=> x = 11.

Third integer = x + 4 = 15.

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Filed Under: Problems on Numbers

38 19552
Q:

A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train ?

A) 69.5 km/hr B) 70 km/hr
C) 79 km/hr D) 79.2 km/hr
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 79.2 km/hr

Explanation:

Let the length of the train be x metres and its speed by y m/sec.


Then, x/y = 8 => x = 8y


Now, (x+264)/20 = y
8y + 264 = 20y
y = 22.
Speed = 22 m/sec = (22*18/5) km/hr = 79.2 km/hr.

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Filed Under: Problems on Trains

61 19513
Q:

A merchant buys two articles for Rs.600. He sells one of them at a profit of 22% and the other at a loss of 8% and makes no profit or loss in the end. What is the selling price of the article that he sold at a loss ?

A) Rs. 404.80 B) Rs. 536.80
C) Rs.440 D) Rs. 160
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) Rs. 404.80

Explanation:

Let C1 be the cost price of the first article and C2 be the cost price of the second article.
Let the first article be sold at a profit of 22%, while the second one be sold at a loss of 8%.

We know, C1 + C2 = 600.
The first article was sold at a profit of 22%. Therefore, the selling price of the first article = C1 + (22/100)C1 = 1.22C1
The second article was sold at a loss of 8%. Therefore, the selling price of the second article = C2 - (8/100)C2 = 0.92C2.

The total selling price of the first and second article = 1.22C1 + 0.92C2.

As the merchant did not make any profit or loss in the entire transaction, his combined selling price of article 1 and 2 is the same as the cost price of article 1 and 2.

Therefore, 1.22C1 + 0.92C2 = C1+C2 = 600
As C1 + C2 = 600, C2 = 600 - C1. Substituting this in 1.22C1 + 0.92C2 = 600, we get
1.22C1 + 0.92(600 - C1) = 600
or 1.22C1 - 0.92C1 = 600 - 0.92*600
or 0.3C1 = 0.08*600 = 48
or C1 = 48/(0.3) = 160.
If C1 = 160, then C2 = 600 - 160 = 440.
The item that is sold at loss is article 2. The selling price of article 2 = 0.92*C2 = 0.92*440 = 404.80.

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Filed Under: Profit and Loss
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
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19 19512