Bank PO Questions

The given number series is 152, 124, 96, 69, 40

152

152 - 28 = 124

124 - 28 = 96

96 - 28 = 68 (not 69)

68 - 28 = 40

Hence, the odd man in the given number series is 69.

Principal = Rs. 10000; Rate = 2% per half-year; Time = 2 years = 4 half-years.
Amount == Rs. 10824.32.

 Rs.10000*1+21004=Rs.10000*5150*5150*5150*5150

 C.I. = Rs. (10824.32 - 10000) = Rs. 824.32.

The given number series follows 5, 4, 9, 32, 308 pattern that

5

5 x 1 - 1 = 4

4 x 3 - 3 = 9

9 x 5 - 5 = 40 (not equals to 32)

40 x 7 - 7 = 273

Hence, the odd man in the given number series is 32.

We know that,

Odd days --> days more than complete weeks

Number of odd days in 400/800/1200/1600/2000 years are 0.

Hence, the number of odd days in first 1600 years are 0.

Number of odd days in 300 years = 1

Number of odd days in 49 years = (12 x 2 + 37 x 1) = 61 days = 5 odd days

Total number of odd days in 1949 years = 1 + 5 = 6 odd days

Now look at the year 1950

Jan 26 = 26 days = 3 weeks + 5 days = 5 odd days

Total number of odd days = 6 + 5 = 11 => 4 odd days

Odd days :-

0 = sunday ;

1 = monday ;

2 = tuesday ;

3 = wednesday ;

4 = thursday ;

5 = friday ;

6 = saturday

Therefore, Jan 26th 1950 was Thursday.

In this series, the third letter is repeated as the first letter of the next segment. The middle letter, A, remains static. The third letters are in alphabetical order, beginning with R.

Here the given number analogy follows two patterns that,

6 

18 --> 6 x 3

4

12 --> 4 x 3

OR

6

18 ----> 6x6/2 = 18

4

8 ----> 4x4/2 = 8

As 12 is not available in the options, 8 is correct answer.

HIS RECENT SUCCESS HAS MADE HIM MORE ARROGANT THAN WHAT HE USED.